Gosh, I fail to understand the significance of this post {puzzled frown crosses manly visage.... brow creases in deep thought}

Not being facetious here but ...
Paul responds that the Jews have a significant advantage because God entrusted them with His Word

Cos he says it is so does not make it so. Where and how was this made clear that God actually entrusted the Jews with His word?

I am not a religious scholar... in fact hardly religious... but this sounds like someone taking the moral highground...

Thoughts @krabgat