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It's funny that they say only 20% have antibodies when some studies have shown over 30% of the general population have antibodies for Covid19. Not only that, but they took some blood samples from a couple years ago and found that even some of those samples tested positive for Covid19 antibodies. What this means is that the ancestors of this virus have been circulating in the population for years already and that about a third of the population has partial immunity. Then they're saying that of those infected, only 20% have antibodies? I mean, did they cherry pick only AIDS patients for this study or something? Something stinks.
RE: Study Suggests 80% of People Allegedly Infected with COVID-19 Have No Antibodies, Were They Even Infected?