When did the definition of consent change to allow coercion to be a valid form? Honestly wondering. It seems that this push for a one size fits all injection mandate is happening quickly and too many people are running scared. Without being fully informed and with threat of their child not being allowed an education or worse, most are giving in with their coerced consent. Being forced to do something at risk of other parts of life being restricted is not consent.
"I am going to fuck you or else you won't have food for a month." Who will chose no food? HOW IS THAT CONSENT? That is coerced consent.
The fact that this country is willing to usurp the medical decisions from the family is the first steps towards some very dark roads. The state knows best was a slogan of some pretty fucked up regimes over history and that is what this can slide towards quickly. Mandating a standard for all only exacerbates the problems since a certain sector of the population will have an adverse reaction to the substance.
HOW ARE PEOPLE SO WILLING TO GIVE UP THEIR FREE CHOICE???
Is it REALLY that much work to be an actual thinking human being?
Apparently so judging by the ignorant masses crying for forced injections.
The disgust I feel constantly from the overt brainwashing that has happened in this world is palpable.
Yet here we go intending to mandate injections regardless. Never being told the true efficacy rates, the true rejection rates, the true mutation rates, the true sloughing rates. Because those numbers would scare the population into NOT getting the shots. When people knew that they risked serious medical problems to avert a minimal problem like chicken pox the might think about their decisions a bit more.
