2 + 4 - which translations are those you are using, the roman catholic babylonian pagan trinity bible? not in the kjv nor most other translations is Jesus called 'God' in these verses.
so you could only come up with two and they are mis-translated.
1,3, 5 - no argument with any of that, as Jesus is the Messiah, the anointed begotten Son of God, who sent Him.
'I and the Father are one' is repairing the breach set by adam. as was referenced in the 1 cor 15 verses, Jesus is the last adam, the second man.
there is no need anywhere for Jesus to have been God Himself, God who cannot be tempted, be born or die, and cannot, despite ancient pagan myths, become a man or any other animal.
Jesus works perfectly well as the human begotten Son of God, but still did what He did for all of us, and will still return to claim His rightful kingdom, and those who believe and follow will rule and reign with Him.
in my bible, doctrine and what God wants me to know are made very clear, and repeated over and over in different places so you cannot miss it. if Jesus was God Himself, it would be very, very clear; people would not have to scrabble about for a couple of mis-translated verses to try and prove their indoctrinated belief.
'shema yisrael, adonai elohenu, adonai ahad.'
RE: Who was Jesus according to scripture?