It is most likely that none of the European colonialists around the world wanted to carry out massacre because it's impractical.
The Spanish and British colonialists wouldn't have brought in African slaves to America if they had massacred the natives purposely. The massive death of native Americans was due to infectious diseases unintentionally brought by the Europeans, not massacre by guns.
The theory that native Americans were extremely proud and could not be enslaved therefore the European colonialists had to massacre them is also not true. The historical fact is that native Americans were left very weak after pandemic of “European diseases” broke out in their communities, rendering them too weak to be enticed into hard labour.
The mass death of indigenous Americans and aboriginal Australians were NOT carried out by the European settlers/colonists intentionally.
Indigenous Americans and aboriginal Australians were struck by pandemic of germs and viruses brought by European settlers/colonists that they weren’t immune to. Some people claim that Europeans gave ‘flu blanket’ to the natives intentionally to kill them off, which is largely unfounded.
Unlike native Americans and Australians, Africans do have frequent contact with Europeans and Asians throughout history (war, trade, missions etc), hence they are more immune to Eurasian pathogens, and less fatal pandemic broke out in Africa.
It's either ignorance or cover-up.
There's no way we could know for sure if a virus is made in lab, unless whoever was making it kept a detailed record of every step and process and publicly acknowledge it.
But the problem is, while we cannot confirm that a virus is man-made if the maker(s) were silenced or denies it outrightly and all evidences have been destroyed, we cannot confirm that it was not man-made either.
That's why it doesn't sound right when W.H.O declares with high confidence that SARS-CoV-2 was not made in lab, because there simply isn't enough evidences to support either side of the claim. The WHO investigations were like police carrying out a breathalyzer test on someone to determine if he/she was drunk-driving one year ago, it's just illogical.
The evidences available at the moment do not support either claims strongly, and W.H.O's official statement that SARS-CoV-2 is highly unlikely to have originated in laboratory is not backed up with evidences.
What is likely to be a lasting effect of COVID-19?
