WHY WAS JESUS BAPTIZED DESPITE BEING SINLESS? PART 1

In response to the above question
Baptism is part of the fulfilment of what was written.
Let look at Matthew 3:13-15
Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him .
(14) But John for bad him, saying I have need to be baptized of thee, and cometh thou to me?
(15) And Jesus answering said unto him, suffer it to be so now: for thus is becometh us to fill all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
Jesus came to fulfill all righteousness.
Let look at Hebrews 10: 7
Then said I, lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me) to do will, o God. Also the book of Isaiah 40: 3.
The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, prepare ye the way of the Lord, make straight in the desert a highway for our God.
The above scripture has prophecy before Jesus Christ was born concerning his baptism and that is what he went to fulfill in
Matthew 3:13
Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John., to be baptized of him. May the Lord give us more knowledge and understanding to hear his word.

You can watch my video below:

You can watch Brother Eli's video below:

@fatimajunio/myoaiuoq

H2
H3
H4
3 columns
2 columns
1 column
Join the conversation now
Ecency