There is an important difference between the sum I chose and the function you show: Your function won't give a graph where you could read the zeros( by checking for sign changes). If you have a sum that

You don't necessarily need to get that low. Your results seem good enough. All that's left to do is to give me the source code.

Your approach looks pretty good so far. Yes I want you to find abs(sum) = 0. Your only problem is that you are are looking at the wrong magnitude and accuracy. Tip: Between 1 and 1000 are already several

32 and 48

That's what one would think would happen, but the sum here is infinite. So you can repeat the pattern that of (1+1-1) for ever without having a zone of (1-1-1). It may fell like some -1's are lost during

sbi or pal

lumberjack

sbi

with the solution of course. The code is just to prevent copy/paste and maybe so that I can help you if you made a mistake.

It would be best if you would post the code, if it isn't too long. I want to prevent that people are able to copy+paste solutions from others.

You don't break the pattern! It goes until infinity…

I expressed it as sum of (-1)^i, where i starts at 0 and gets incremented until it reaches infinity. Thus leading to (-1)⁰+(-1)¹+(-1)²+… = 1-1+1-…

16 and 32

sbi or pal

sbi or pal

lumberjack

sbi or pal

There are also 2 other solutions.

That's wrong. There are two solutions for 4n² - 2n - 1 = 0 They just aren't integers, that's why you didn't find them.

sbi